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Modulus ProofDate: 04/16/2001 at 01:52:27 From: Ooi Chin Wah Subject: Number theory Can you please show me why m^(2^n) = 1 mod(2^(n+2)) when m is an odd integer? Thanks.
Date: 04/16/2001 at 12:22:16
From: Doctor Rob
Subject: Re: Number theory
Thanks for writing to Ask Dr. Math.
This is most easily proved by induction. It is false for n = 0, so you
must assume that n >= 1.
Start with m^2 = 1 (mod 8). That works because
(2*k+1)^2 = 8*(k*[k+1]/2) + 1
Now assume it is true for a certain value of n:
m^(2^n) = 1 + r*2^(n+2)
Square both sides to increase the exponent on the left to 2^[n+1], and
see what happens on the right after you expand. Notice that
2*n + 4 > n + 3 for all n >= 1.
You finish.
- Doctor Rob, The Math Forum
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/
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